Salesforce-Contact-Center Practice Test Questions

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer:

🔐 B. Configure field-level security to grant selective access to sensitive data based on user roles and permissions
Field-Level Security (FLS) in Salesforce is a fundamental feature that helps enforce data privacy and access controls at the most granular level—individual fields. By configuring FLS, administrators can define exactly who sees what information, ensuring that sensitive data like health records, financial info, or personally identifiable information (PII) is only visible to authorized users such as compliance teams or executive staff. This method is integrated into the Salesforce platform, requires no custom code, and is scalable across standard and custom objects. Using FLS also supports audit trails and simplifies compliance with regulations like GDPR, HIPAA, or CCPA, making it the most comprehensive and native method to enforce security at the data model level.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

🚫 A. Utilize custom fields to capture all types of customer information without access restrictions
While creating custom fields is often necessary for capturing business-specific data, doing so without applying appropriate security controls exposes the data to everyone who has access to the object. This option neglects the concept of role-based access and directly undermines the principle of least privilege. For example, a support agent shouldn't be able to see a customer's credit card information if their job doesn't require it. Allowing open access to sensitive fields compromises both security and compliance.

🛡️ C. Implement third-party data encryption solutions for additional security layers
Though third-party encryption can be part of a broader data protection strategy, it does not inherently enforce access controls within Salesforce. Encryption may protect the data at rest or in transit, but unless paired with Salesforce-native controls like FLS or sharing rules, it doesn’t restrict who can access the data once they’re logged in. Moreover, adding external tools increases system complexity, costs, and may introduce compatibility issues. For most organizations, Salesforce Shield—which provides platform encryption—is a more integrated and manageable option.

🚫 D. Store all customer data in one field without any segregation or access control mechanisms
Storing all sensitive customer data in a single, unstructured field is a poor design practice. This not only makes the data difficult to manage and report on but also eliminates the possibility of applying specific access controls. It prevents segmentation, validation, and auditability, and increases the risk of data exposure due to over-permissioning. This approach shows a complete disregard for data architecture best practices and severely limits the ability to comply with data governance policies.

Explanation:

To ensure effective ongoing support and maintenance after the rollout of a Salesforce project, all the elements listed are essential:

A. Establishing a support channel is crucial for a responsive troubleshooting and issue-reporting mechanism.

B. Regular system updates and patches are necessary to maintain system health and performance, ensuring that bugs are fixed and improvements are implemented regularly.

C. Periodic user training sessions help users stay up-to-date with new features and updates, which is essential for maximizing the adoption and utility of the system.

Collectively, these elements create a robust support structure that facilitates continuous improvement and user engagement. Salesforce offers guidance on establishing these elements in their best practices for system maintenance and user training.

More about ongoing support and maintenance best practices can be found here:

https://admin.salesforce.com

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer:

C. User records for your contact center agents
The User object is the most appropriate for associating performance data with actual agents in the system. Each Salesforce user has a unique user record, and metrics like call volume, resolution rate, or average handle time can be linked or reported on using the user’s ID. This enables role-based access, accurate reporting, and integration with performance dashboards.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Account records representing your customer organizations.
Account records are meant for storing information about companies or customer entities. They are not associated with internal Salesforce users like agents, so using them to store agent performance data would break standard data modeling principles.

B. Contact records for individual customer contacts.
Contact records are associated with external individuals, usually customers or clients. Assigning internal performance metrics to contacts would be confusing and misleading, and it would disconnect agents’ actions from their actual user identity.

D. Custom objects specifically designed for tracking agent performance metrics.
While custom objects can store performance metrics, they should be used in relation to User records, not in place of them. Custom objects alone don’t have the necessary system-level associations and security settings tied to actual agent identities.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer:

A. Each class and trigger that was deployed is covered by at least 75% jointly.
Salesforce mandates that at least 75% code coverage is achieved across all Apex classes and triggers before allowing a deployment to be marked as successful, especially for production environments. Quick Deployments can bypass full test reruns only if a successful validation has already occurred and the code coverage threshold is met. This ensures stability without repeating test execution unnecessarily.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

B. Tests in the org or all local tests are run and Apex triggers have some coverage.
This option lacks the precision required for quick deployment eligibility. Partial coverage or vague criteria like “some coverage” do not meet Salesforce’s strict requirement of 75% code coverage, and would fail deployment checks.

C. Components have been validated successfully for the target event within at least 70 days.
While it’s true that a validated deployment can remain usable for 4 days, the number “70” is incorrect. Furthermore, even validated deployments require the minimum test and coverage thresholds to qualify for Quick Deployment.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer:

A. Use Salesforce Knowledge to store questions and answers so agents can easily reproduce the same answer for similar questions.
Salesforce Knowledge is a robust solution that allows agents to write, store, and retrieve articles related to frequently asked questions and support cases. By converting case summaries into reusable knowledge articles, organizations create a living knowledge base that helps reduce duplication of effort, improve consistency, and speed up case resolution.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

B. Use Slack to allow agents to share best practices in responding to customer questions.
Slack is helpful for internal collaboration, but it lacks structure and formal content management. Best practices shared in chat can get lost or become outdated without version control, making them less reliable over time.

C. Use Quick Text to allow agents to create personal Quick Texts for answers they alternate.
Quick Text is useful for inserting prewritten messages, but personal Quick Texts are not shareable by default. This limits their value in building a consistent, centralized resource for knowledge reuse. It's more effective when used in combination with Salesforce Knowledge.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer: D
All of these methods can play a vital role in identifying and handling duplicate entries before case data is migrated to Salesforce. Data cleansing is often a hybrid process combining automated tools with manual review, especially when working with large, complex datasets. Using email or phone matching helps catch obvious duplicates, while duplicate detection tools add automation and scale. Manual reviews, although labor-intensive, ensure high-quality results for edge cases or exceptions. Leveraging all these strategies together results in a cleaner, more accurate dataset post-migration.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Matching and merging records based on email or phone is a great initial strategy, but it's often limited. Not all records contain these fields, and users may have multiple emails or shared phone numbers. This method alone won’t catch all potential duplicates, especially if there are formatting inconsistencies or missing values.

B. Using data quality rules and duplicate detection tools like Duplicate Management in Salesforce or third-party tools (e.g., DemandTools) is highly effective but might still miss certain edge cases or context-specific duplicates. These tools are rule-based, and without manual inspection, you risk false positives or missed matches.

C. Manual comparison is helpful for nuanced data verification, such as matching case descriptions or context. However, it's time-consuming and unscalable, especially in large migrations. It also introduces human error if not backed by a structured review process.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer: D
When the goal is to improve user adoption and engagement in self-service channels, no single metric provides a complete picture. Instead, a combination of metrics offers the most accurate insights. Article views and downloads show content reach and interest, deflection rate reveals efficiency and cost savings, and satisfaction scores measure the overall user experience. Together, they reflect not just how many people are using the service, but also how successfully it's meeting their needs and whether they are likely to continue using it.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Tracking the number of self-service article views or downloads can help understand what information customers are interested in, but it only measures content access, not usefulness or whether users’ problems were actually resolved. It’s a surface-level engagement metric and doesn’t necessarily indicate successful adoption or customer satisfaction.

B. Case deflection rate is a powerful operational metric that reflects how well your self-service channels are reducing agent workload. However, it focuses on efficiency more than engagement or satisfaction. A high deflection rate might still be accompanied by low customer satisfaction if users don’t find the answers helpful.

C. Customer satisfaction (CSAT) scores related to the self-service experience give insight into perceived value and ease of use, but they don’t tell the full story. Users might be satisfied but still rely heavily on support agents if the content or search functionality is limited. CSAT helps with quality measurement, but not volume or behavior.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer: A
Escalation Rules in Salesforce are specifically designed to automate the reassignment of cases based on predefined time intervals or criteria such as SLA violations. By creating an Escalation Rule Entry and configuring it to check if the case remains open past the defined SLA time, the system can automatically escalate the case to a higher-tier queue or assign it to more experienced support staff. This ensures timely resolution and enforces accountability. Escalation Rules work seamlessly with the standard Case object and are a best practice in service management for SLA-based workflows.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

B. While it might seem creative to use a Quick Action with Conditional Visibility Rules combined with a record-triggered flow, this approach introduces unnecessary complexity and maintenance overhead. It also places the burden of triggering escalations on user interface elements and manual processes, which undermines the goal of automated SLA enforcement. This method may not scale well and lacks the robustness of the out-of-the-box Escalation Rule functionality, which is purpose-built for time-based case escalations.

C. This option is vague and incomplete. It suggests the use of Escalation Rules but lacks the detailed execution steps necessary for solving the actual problem. It doesn’t mention the critical configuration of time-based actions or how the system should respond once the SLA is breached. Without clarity on the setup or outcome, this answer does not provide a sufficient or actionable solution compared to Option A.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer: D
The best approach to ensuring strong data security and compliance is to use a layered, comprehensive strategy that includes all three elements. Implementing field-level security allows for granular control of sensitive information, ensuring that users only see the data they are authorized to view. Data encryption — both at rest and in transit — adds a crucial security layer to prevent unauthorized access even if physical or network-level security is compromised. Regular audits and vulnerability assessments are necessary to identify weaknesses proactively and maintain adherence to internal and external compliance requirements. Together, these features address security from access control, encryption, and operational oversight perspectives, creating a secure, auditable, and policy-driven environment that aligns with legal and regulatory expectations.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. While field-level security is essential for controlling user access and ensuring that only appropriate roles can view or modify sensitive information, it represents just one piece of the security puzzle. Relying on access controls alone without encryption or regular audits leaves the system vulnerable to deeper systemic threats, such as breaches due to misconfigured permissions or insider misuse.

B. Encrypting customer data is a crucial step in protecting information from unauthorized access, particularly in the event of a data breach. However, encryption alone does not prevent misuse by authorized users or identify policy violations. Without complementary controls like access restrictions and monitoring, encryption offers only partial protection.

C. Conducting security audits and assessments is important for identifying vulnerabilities and ensuring compliance, but it is a reactive measure unless paired with proactive controls such as encryption and access restriction. On its own, auditing is insufficient to prevent data exposure or maintain continuous security posture.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer: B
The Service Cloud Voice Analytics App combined with the Omni Supervisor Console provides the most comprehensive and integrated view of agent performance and call handling within Salesforce when using Service Cloud Voice with Amazon Connect. The Voice Analytics App is specifically designed to surface call insights, transcriptions, and key metrics like average handle time, call volume, and call disposition — all within the Salesforce platform. Meanwhile, the Omni Supervisor Console offers real-time views of agent availability, queue status, and ongoing interactions. This dual setup ensures supervisors can monitor both real-time and historical KPIs seamlessly inside Salesforce, aligning with the post-implementation training and operational management goals for Ursa Major Solar.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. While the Omni Supervisor Console and Amazon Supervisor Dashboard both offer useful supervisory tools, this pairing is incomplete and inefficient in a Salesforce-first environment. The Amazon Supervisor Dashboard focuses solely on Amazon Connect metrics and lacks deep integration with Salesforce objects or data models. As a result, supervisors would need to juggle multiple platforms without a unified view, which limits visibility into complete KPIs and introduces complexity in day-to-day operations.

C. The Service Cloud Voice Analytics App provides strong post-call insights within Salesforce, but when paired with the Amazon Supervisor Dashboard instead of the Omni Supervisor Console, the setup fails to offer real-time queue and agent monitoring inside Salesforce. Amazon’s dashboard does not offer native visibility into Salesforce interactions or Omni-Channel routing. This fragmented approach diminishes the supervisor's ability to monitor and act quickly on performance indicators in real-time across both platforms.