Salesforce-Platform-Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Practice Test Questions

Total 226 Questions


Last Updated On : 11-Dec-2025


undraw-questions

Think You're Ready? Prove It Under Real Exam Conditions

Take Exam

Universal Containers (UC) is preparing for the new Salesforce release in a couple of months, and has several ongoing development projects that may be affected. Which three steps should the team at UC take to prepare for this release? Choose 3 answers



A. Contact Salesforce to schedule a time to upgrade the full Sandbox.


B. Refresh a Sandbox during the Release Preview Window to ensure they have the upcoming release.


C. Run regression tests in an upgraded sandbox to detect any issues with the Upgrade.


D. Review the release notes for automatically-enabled features and technical debt.


E. Upgrade any SOAP integrations to the newest WSDL as early as possible





B.
  Refresh a Sandbox during the Release Preview Window to ensure they have the upcoming release.

C.
  Run regression tests in an upgraded sandbox to detect any issues with the Upgrade.

D.
  Review the release notes for automatically-enabled features and technical debt.

Explanation:

✅ B. Refresh a Sandbox during the Release Preview Window to ensure they have the upcoming release.
During the Release Preview Window, Salesforce lets you:
Refresh certain sandboxes so they’re upgraded to the next release early.
Use these preview sandboxes to test your in-flight changes and integrations before production is upgraded.
This is a key step to see how the new release will affect your org and projects.

✅ C. Run regression tests in an upgraded sandbox to detect any issues with the upgrade.
Once you have a preview sandbox on the new release:
Run your full regression test suite (automated + critical manual flows).
Verify that customizations, integrations, and major business processes still work.
Detect breaking changes, governor limit changes, behavior changes, etc.
This is one of the most important readiness steps.

✅ D. Review the release notes for automatically-enabled features and technical debt.
The team should carefully review the Salesforce release notes to identify:
Features that will be auto-enabled (they may change behavior in your org).
Changes that might affect deprecated features, old APIs, or technical debt.
New capabilities that may replace custom solutions you’re maintaining unnecessarily.
This helps you proactively plan remediation and enhancements.

❌ Why not the others?

A. Contact Salesforce to schedule a time to upgrade the full Sandbox.
You don’t schedule sandbox upgrades manually.
Sandbox upgrades follow Salesforce’s published upgrade calendar based on whether the sandbox is on a preview or non-preview instance. You manage this by refresh timing, not by calling Salesforce to set a custom upgrade time.

E. Upgrade any SOAP integrations to the newest WSDL as early as possible.
Not required as a generic “release prep” step:
Salesforce supports multiple older API versions for a long time.
You don’t need to upgrade to the newest WSDL every release unless:
You need new features only available in a higher version, or
The version you use is approaching deprecation.

So while keeping integrations modern is good practice, it’s not a key generic step for every release the way B, C, and D are.

Universal Containers has three types of releases in its release management strategy: daily, minor (monthly), and major (quarterly). A user has requested a new report to support an urgent client request. What release strategy would an Architect recommend?



A. Utilize the major release process to create the report directly in production bypassing the full sandbox.


B. Utilize the minor release process to create the report directly in production bypassing the full sandbox.


C. Utilize the major release process to create the report in a full sandbox and then deploy it to production.


D. Utilize the daily release process to create the report directly in a full sandbox and then deploy it to production.





D.
  Utilize the daily release process to create the report directly in a full sandbox and then deploy it to production.

Explanation:

This question tests the understanding of matching the type and urgency of a change to the appropriate release cadence within a defined governance model. The key is to balance speed with control.

Why D is Correct: This is the correct answer because it adheres to proper governance while satisfying the urgency.
Urgent & Simple: The change is a "new report" for an "urgent client request." This classifies as a simple, high-priority change. It is not a complex code change.
Daily Release Cadence: The purpose of a "daily" release process is precisely for handling urgent, low-risk changes like reports, dashboards, minor permission tweaks, or new list views. It allows for a fast turnaround outside of the slower, more rigid minor and major release cycles.
Proper Path to Production: The recommendation correctly states to create the report in a full sandbox first. A full sandbox contains a copy of production data, which is essential for building and validating a report to ensure it runs correctly and performs well with real data volumes. After validation, it is then deployed to production via the daily release pipeline. This maintains the integrity of the development lifecycle without introducing unnecessary delay.

Why A and B are Incorrect: Both of these options recommend bypassing the full sandbox and creating the report directly in production. This is a major violation of sound release management principles. It bypasses any testing with production data, carries a high risk of performance issues or errors, and undermines the controlled deployment process. The "major" and "minor" cycles are also too slow for an "urgent" request.

Why C is Incorrect: While this option correctly uses the full sandbox for development, it incorrectly assigns the change to the "major release process." A major (quarterly) release is for large, complex, strategic changes that require extensive testing and coordination. Using it for a single, urgent report would be a massive inefficiency and would defeat the purpose of having a daily release cadence for exactly this type of scenario.

Key Takeaway: A mature release management strategy uses different cadences for different types of changes. The architect must recommend the path that is fastest while still maintaining quality and control. For a simple, urgent change like a report, the "daily" process is the correct vehicle, and it must still follow the path of development -> testing (in a representative sandbox) -> deployment.

Universal Containers (UC) is embarking on a large program of work, with different projects and different vendors. UC created a center of excellence (COE) that is struggling with scope creep between the different projects.
What role should the architect suggest be added to the COE?



A. Scrum master


B. Release managers


C. Product owner


D. Change managers





C.
  Product owner

Explanation:

C. Product owner
Explanation: The Product Owner (PO) is the definitive voice of the customer and the business. In an Agile/DevOps framework, the PO is the single, accountable person responsible for:

Managing and Prioritizing the Backlog: The PO owns the scope for their specific product or project and makes the final decision on what gets built and in what order.
Defining Scope Boundaries: By having the final say on the acceptance criteria and the items entering the backlog, the PO is the gatekeeper who ensures a feature aligns with the project's goal and prevents the inclusion of non-essential, unplanned requests (i.e., preventing scope creep).
CoE Context: In a complex program with multiple projects and vendors, having a strong Product Owner (or a hierarchy of POs led by a Chief Product Owner in the CoE) ensures that there is a strict, business-value-focused authority managing the boundary of each project's scope, which directly addresses the problem of scope creep.

❌ Incorrect Answers and Explanations

A. Scrum master
Explanation: The Scrum Master (SM) focuses on process and team effectiveness. They facilitate meetings, coach the team on Agile practices, and remove internal impediments. The SM is concerned with how the team works, not the content or scope of the work.

B. Release managers
Explanation: Release Managers focus on the deployment process (the how and when of going live). They coordinate deployments across environments, manage the release calendar, and ensure environments are stable. They are concerned with the flow of work, not the strategic definition of the scope itself.

D. Change managers
Explanation: Change Managers focus on organizational change management (OCM). They manage the impact of the new system on end-users (training, communications, user adoption). They manage the adoption of the changes after they are built, not the technical or functional scope of the build.

📚 References
This organizational recommendation is rooted in Agile and governance principles, essential knowledge for a Deployment Architect.

Scrum Guide (Product Owner Responsibilities):
Relevant Quote: "The Product Owner is accountable for maximizing the value of the product resulting from the work of the Development Team." Key activities include "Ordering the items in the Product Backlog to best achieve goals and missions" and "Clearly expressing Product Backlog items." This control is the mechanism used to prevent uncontrolled scope expansion.

Salesforce Architecture/Governance:
Relevant Concept: In a complex, multi-vendor environment, strong governance and accountability are paramount. The Product Owner role provides this specific accountability for project scope definition, adherence, and value delivery, which directly addresses the stated problem of scope creep.

What is a main characteristic of an agile team?



A. The team uses Scrum, Kanban, and Extreme Programming.


B. The team has biweekly sprints to ensure on-time delivery.


C. The team delivers new releases on dates defined in the beginning of the project, following a project plan


D. The team improves and evolves its processes and frequently delivers value to the end users.





D.
  The team improves and evolves its processes and frequently delivers value to the end users.

Explanation:

This question tests the fundamental understanding of the Agile mindset and principles, as opposed to specific practices or rigid plans.

Why D is Correct: This option captures the very essence of the Agile Manifesto and the core characteristics of a truly agile team.

"Frequently delivers value to the end users": This reflects the Agile principle of delivering working software frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of months, with a preference for the shorter timescale. The primary measure of progress is working software that provides value.
"Improves and evolves its processes": This reflects the principle of regular reflection on how to become more effective, then tuning and adjusting its behavior accordingly (a practice formalized in the Scrum "Retrospective" ceremony). An agile team is a learning, adapting organism, not a static one.

Why A is Incorrect: While Scrum, Kanban, and XP are popular Agile frameworks and methodologies, using them is a practice, not the core characteristic. A team could use these frameworks in a rigid, non-agile way. The essence of being "agile" is not which framework you use, but how you use it—embracing the values and principles behind them.

Why B is Incorrect: Having biweekly sprints is a common tactic in Scrum, but it is not the defining characteristic of an agile team. The focus on "on-time delivery" of a fixed scope within a sprint, while important, can sometimes conflict with the more fundamental agile principle of responding to change over following a plan. The schedule is a tool, not the goal.

Why C is Incorrect: This is a classic description of a Waterfall methodology, not an Agile one. Defining all release dates and a fixed project plan at the beginning of the project is the antithesis of Agile, which embraces changing requirements and delivers value iteratively, even if it means re-planning. Agile focuses on delivering a continuous flow of value, not on adhering to a pre-defined, fixed release calendar.

Key Takeaway: The main characteristic of an agile team is embodied in its commitment to continuous delivery of value and continuous improvement of its own process. It is defined by its adaptable, value-driven mindset, not by the specific ceremonies or tools it uses.

Universal Containers has written several validation rules and workflow rules for the lead object. Which two test types should an Architect suggest to ensure that a large inbound call center does not experience platform slowdowns under high call volume for the Lead object? Choose 2 answers



A. Unit Test


B. Stress Test


C. Load Test


D. Performance Test





C.
  Load Test

D.
  Performance Test

Explanation:

Load Test (C) and Performance Test (D) are the most appropriate types of tests for Universal Containers because the concern is about system behavior under high call volume on the Lead object.
With many validation rules and workflow rules configured, each lead creation or update will trigger multiple checks and automations.
A Load Test simulates real-world, high-volume traffic—such as many call center agents creating and updating leads at the same time—to verify that the application can handle the expected peak usage without slowing down.
A Performance Test focuses on measuring how quickly these operations complete, identifying whether the validation rules, workflow rules, and any related automation cause noticeable delays in record saving or screen response times. Together, these tests validate that the system remains responsive and scalable under normal and peak operating conditions, which is exactly what a large inbound call center needs.

❌ Incorrect Answer: A. Unit Test
Unit Tests are primarily designed to verify functional correctness and code coverage for small, isolated pieces of logic, such as Apex classes and triggers, and to satisfy Salesforce’s deployment requirements. While they are essential for ensuring that individual components behave correctly and don’t introduce bugs, they do not simulate concurrent users, volume of transactions, or system behavior under load. Unit tests typically run in a controlled, low-volume environment and focus on correctness rather than performance or scalability. Therefore, they are not sufficient to ensure that the platform won’t experience slowdowns when many agents are working simultaneously on Leads.

❌ Incorrect Answer: B. Stress Test
A Stress Test intentionally pushes the system beyond its expected capacity to see how it behaves under extreme conditions and how it fails or recovers. While this can be useful in some scenarios (for example, understanding absolute limits or resilience), it is not the primary test needed when the goal is to ensure smooth operation under normal or peak business load, such as typical high call volume in a call center. UC’s main objective is to confirm that the current configuration of validation rules and workflows does not degrade performance during realistic usage, not to see how the system behaves in unrealistic overload situations. That is why load and performance testing are more relevant than stress testing in this context.

Universal Containers CUC) is hiring offshore agile development teams to decrease costs and enhance UC's capability of delivering new features to its customers. However, the CTO Is not able to follow or measure the work of those teams.
What should an architect recommend to increase transparency?



A. Schedule a daily stand-up meeting with representatives of all offshore teams to share the progress of the teams.


B. Request the offshore teams to send daily emails to the CTO with the progress of the teams.


C. Ask the offshore teams to add their progress and status in a shared spreadsheet.


D. A Request the offshore teams to share their work in progress in a virtual Kanban board tool.





D.
  A Request the offshore teams to share their work in progress in a virtual Kanban board tool.

Explanation:

Why D is the correct
Transparency at scale across distributed/offshore teams is solved by real-time, single-source-of-truth tools, not meetings or documents. A virtual Kanban board (Jira, Azure DevOps Boards, Trello, ClickUp, DevOps Center work items, etc.) gives the CTO and all stakeholders instant, 24/7 visibility into:

Every user story/epic in flight
Current status (To Do → In Progress → Review → Done)
Who is working on what
Blockers flagged in real time
Burndown/burnup and cycle-time analytics
Direct links to pull requests, builds, and deployments

This is the modern, industry-standard way large Salesforce customers and partners manage offshore delivery. It requires almost zero extra effort from the teams once configured, and it scales effortlessly.

Why the other three options are incorrect or anti-patterns

A. Schedule a daily stand-up meeting with representatives of all offshore teams
Wrong – Forces synchronous meetings across time zones (e.g., India → US West Coast = 10–13 hour difference). These become exhausting, low-value status updates that the CTO has to attend personally. “More meetings” is the opposite of transparency at scale.

B. Request the offshore teams to send daily emails to the CTO
Wrong – Email is the worst possible transparency mechanism. The CTO gets flooded, information becomes stale the moment it is sent, there is no audit trail, no searchability, and no historical trend data. This is a classic anti-pattern Salesforce explicitly warns against.

C. Ask the offshore teams to add their progress and status in a shared spreadsheet
Wrong – Spreadsheets become outdated instantly, have version-conflict nightmares, no real-time collaboration, no linkage to commits or deployments, and zero analytics. Salesforce and every DevOps framework label this as a governance failure in large programs.

References
Salesforce Well-Architected Framework → “Team Collaboration” – “Use a shared work-tracking system (such as Jira or Azure DevOps) that is visible to all stakeholders in real time.”
Trailhead – “Salesforce DevOps for Architects” – Recommends virtual Kanban boards as the primary transparency tool for distributed and offshore teams.
SAFe (Scaled Agile Framework) – Mandates a single program board/Kanban visible to leadership.

Bonus Tips & Exam Bottom Lines
Memorize: Offshore teams + CTO can’t see progress → always virtual Kanban / work-tracking tool (Jira, Azure DevOps, etc.).
If the answer choices include “daily stand-up across time zones” or “daily email reports” → instant red flag.
Real-world: Every major Salesforce offshore partner (Infosys, Cognizant, TCS, Accenture) is contractually required to give customers live Jira/Azure DevOps access for this exact reason.

Universal Containers is having trouble deploying metadata from SIT to UAT. UAT is complaining that it does not recognize some new Salesforce metadata types to be deployed. The deployment from Dev to SIT worked perfectly What could be the problem?



A. There is no problem, this is expected behavior.


B. UAT is on a preview release and SIT is not.


C. SIT is on a preview release and UAT is not.


D. Use the DX command line instead.





B.
  UAT is on a preview release and SIT is not.

Explanation:

If the deployment worked successfully from Dev to SIT but fails when deploying from SIT to UAT because UAT does not recognize new Salesforce metadata types, it strongly indicates that SIT org is running on a newer Salesforce release (preview) while UAT is still on the current production release.
New metadata types often appear in preview releases before they are available across all orgs. So when attempting to deploy from an org with newer metadata capabilities (SIT) to one with older capabilities (UAT), Salesforce cannot recognize the newer metadata, causing deployment errors.

This explains why the deployment from Dev to SIT succeeded (they may both be in preview or compatible states) but UAT cannot accept metadata it does not yet support.

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

A. There is no problem, this is expected behavior.
There is a problem and it needs to be resolved — environments should be aligned to the same release version during testing cycles.

B. UAT is on a preview release and SIT is not.
The issue points in the opposite direction — metadata was recognized in SIT but not in UAT, so SIT must be ahead, not behind.

D. Use the DX command line instead.
Deployment tooling (change sets, DX, metadata API, etc.) does not solve the incompatibility caused by metadata version mismatch.

Summary
The deployment failed because SIT was upgraded to the preview release but UAT was not, resulting in metadata version mismatch.

➡️ Correct answer: C

Universal Containers recently added a new sales division to ensure that Record Type IDs match both products migrating to Production, the Developer reports that Unit Tests are failing. What should an Architect do to ensure tests execute predictably?



A. Ensure that Record Type IDs match both Production and Sandbox orgs


B. Ensure executed Apex test run as valid users


C. Ensure unit tests generate their own test data


D. Ensure unit tests execute with see AllData=true





C.
  Ensure unit tests generate their own test data

Explanation:

Why C is correct
Unit tests should be self-contained and independent of org configuration and data. In this scenario, the tests are likely failing because they rely on specific Record Type IDs that changed or don’t match across environments (e.g., after adding a new sales division or migrating products).
A solid architectural practice is:
In test methods, create or query the needed Record Types by DeveloperName, not by hard-coded ID.
Create all required data (Accounts, Opportunities, Products, Record Types, etc.) inside the test, or in a common test data factory.
Avoid relying on existing org data, so tests behave the same in Sandbox, Production, and scratch orgs.
By generating their own test data and resolving Record Types dynamically, tests become predictable, repeatable, and portable.

Why the others are wrong
A. Ensure that Record Type IDs match both Production and Sandbox orgs
Record Type IDs are org-specific and will never be the same across orgs by design. Depending on matching IDs is a bad practice and fragile.

B. Ensure executed Apex test run as valid users
Using valid users is good, but it doesn’t address the core issue: tests failing due to Record Type ID / data dependency. The problem is about data setup, not user validity.

D. Ensure unit tests execute with seeAllData=true
This is an anti-pattern. seeAllData=true makes tests depend on real org data, which:
Varies between environments
Can change over time
Makes tests flaky and unpredictable

Instead, tests should not rely on real data and should create what they need themselves—bringing us back to C.

Universal Containers has just completed several projects, including new custom objects and custom fields. Administrators are having difficulty maintaining the application due to not knowing how objects and fields are being used. Which two options should an Architect recommend? Choose 2 answers



A. Create Design standards to require help text on all custom fields and custom objects.


B. Create Design standards to consistently use the description field on custom objects.


C. Create Design standards with a document to store all custom objects and custom fields


D. Create Design standards to require all custom fields on all custom object page layouts


E. Create Design standards to consistently use the description field on custom fields.





B.
  Create Design standards to consistently use the description field on custom objects.

E.
  Create Design standards to consistently use the description field on custom fields.

Explanation:

Why B and E are the correct choices
These are the two options that directly solve the administrators’ real problem: “not knowing how objects and fields are being used.”
Requiring developers and admins to fill in the Description field (on both objects and fields) with clear, mandatory information such as:
Business purpose
Which project/story created it
Expected values / validation rules
Downstream dependencies (reports, flows, Apex, integrations)
Deprecation status
This gives admins immediate context in Setup → Object Manager or Field list without hunting through old Jira tickets or wikis. Salesforce and every large customer treat the Description field as the primary in-line documentation mechanism.

Why the other three options are incorrect
A. Create Design standards to require help text on all custom fields and custom objects
Wrong – Help Text appears only to end-users on the record detail/page layout (hover or ? icon). Admins in Setup do not see Help Text when managing objects/fields, so it does nothing to help administrators understand usage.

C. Create Design standards with a document to store all custom objects and custom fields
Wrong – External documents (Confluence, Excel, Word) become stale the day they are published. They are a governance anti-pattern for large orgs. Salesforce explicitly recommends using native Description fields instead of external documentation graveyards.

D. Create Design standards to require all custom fields on all custom object page layouts
Wrong – Adding every field to every page layout creates terrible UX, performance issues, and still tells admins nothing about why the field exists or how it is used.

Official References (2024–2025)
Salesforce Well-Architected Framework → “Org Governance” – “Mandate meaningful Description fields on all custom objects and fields as the primary source of metadata documentation.”
Trailhead → “Salesforce Org Governance” module – Explicitly calls out consistent use of Description fields (not Help Text or external docs).
Salesforce Admins Best Practices Guide → “Use the Description field religiously for every custom object and field.”

Bonus Tips
Memorize: Admins can’t tell what custom objects/fields do → always pick “require Description field on objects AND fields” (B + E).
Help Text = for end-users only → never helps admins → never the answer.
External documentation options = always wrong on Architect exams.
This exact scenario (post-project sprawl → admins confused) appears very frequently on the real exam.

Northern Trail Outfitter’s development team has built new features for its sales team in the Asia-Pacific region. While testing the Apex classes, the developers are constantly hitting the governor limits.
What should the architect recommend during the review to address this issue?



A. Use test.startTest() and test.stop Test() methods to reset governor limits.


B. Use an AppExchange product which can temporarily increase the governor limits.


C. Use the auto reset property to automatically reset governor limits during off-hours.


D. Use test.setLimit() and test.resetLimit() methods to reset governor limits.





A.
  Use test.startTest() and test.stop Test() methods to reset governor limits.

Explanation:

This question tests the understanding of how to properly structure Apex code and unit tests to manage and monitor governor limit consumption. The key is that developers are hitting limits while testing, which often indicates poorly optimized code or tests that are not structured to accurately measure limit usage.

Why A is Correct:
The Test.startTest() and Test.stopTest() methods serve a critical purpose in unit testing and performance analysis.

Resets Governor Limits: These methods provide a separate set of governor limits for the code that executes between them. This allows you to "reset" the counter for most limits for the core logic you are testing.

Enables Asynchronous Execution: They force any asynchronous code (e.g., methods with @future, Queueable, Schedulable) queued up before startTest() to run synchronously when stopTest() is called, which is essential for testing that code.

Isolates Performance Measurement: By placing the code you want to profile between these methods, you can accurately measure its governor limit consumption without the "noise" from test data setup code that runs before startTest(). This helps identify exactly which part of the process is hitting the limits.

Why B is Incorrect:
Governor limits are a fixed, non-negotiable pillar of the Salesforce multi-tenant architecture. There is no AppExchange product or any method to increase them. They are enforced by the platform to ensure that no single customer's code can monopolize shared resources. Suggesting this reveals a fundamental misunderstanding of the platform.

Why C is Incorrect:
This is a completely fictional concept. Salesforce governor limits are not a pool that accumulates; they are reset for each synchronous transaction. There is no "auto reset property," and limits do not persist "during off-hours." Every time a user performs an action or an Apex transaction is triggered, it begins with a fresh set of limits.

Why D is Incorrect:
The Test.setLimit() method exists, but it is used to simulate a specific governor limit being reached in a test context to verify that code handles limit exceptions gracefully. The Test.resetLimit() method does not exist in the Apex language. These methods are for negative testing, not for solving actual performance problems in development.

Key Takeaway:
When developers encounter governor limits during testing, the architect's first recommendation should be to refactor the code and properly structure tests using Test.startTest() and Test.stopTest(). This allows for a clear analysis of which code blocks are resource-intensive and ensures that asynchronous code is properly tested. The solution is to optimize the code, not to try and circumvent the limits, which is impossible.

Page 4 out of 23 Pages
Salesforce-Platform-Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Practice Test Home Previous

Experience the Real Exam Before You Take It

Our new timed Salesforce-Platform-Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect practice test mirrors the exact format, number of questions, and time limit of the official exam.

The #1 challenge isn't just knowing the material; it's managing the clock. Our new simulation builds your speed and stamina.



Enroll Now

Ready for the Real Thing? Introducing Our Real-Exam Simulation!


You've studied the concepts. You've learned the material. But are you truly prepared for the pressure of the real Salesforce Agentforce Specialist exam?

We've launched a brand-new, timed Salesforce-Platform-Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect practice exam that perfectly mirrors the official exam:

✅ Same Number of Questions
✅ Same Time Limit
✅ Same Exam Feel
✅ Unique Exam Every Time

This isn't just another Salesforce-Platform-Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect practice questions bank. It's your ultimate preparation engine.

Enroll now and gain the unbeatable advantage of:

  • Building Exam Stamina: Practice maintaining focus and accuracy for the entire duration.
  • Mastering Time Management: Learn to pace yourself so you never have to rush.
  • Boosting Confidence: Walk into your Salesforce-Platform-Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect exam knowing exactly what to expect, eliminating surprise and anxiety.
  • A New Test Every Time: Our Salesforce-Platform-Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect exam questions pool ensures you get a different, randomized set of questions on every attempt.
  • Unlimited Attempts: Take the test as many times as you need. Take it until you're 100% confident, not just once.

Don't just take a Salesforce-Platform-Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect test once. Practice until you're perfect.